Labelled mock paper

SSC CGL 2025 Previous Year Question Paper

SSC CGL 2025 question paper was never officially released. Practise our labelled 2025 mock: 20 questions with answers, built on the reported pattern.

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No official SSC CGL 2025 paper was released.Practise the labelled mock paper built from that year's reported pattern.Open mock

The SSC CGL 2025 question paper was not officially published, so this page does not host it. Instead it has a clearly labelled mock paper with original questions modelled on the reported 2025 pattern, plus a timed attempt plan and an error-log routine. The SSC CGL exam covers Quant, Reasoning, English and GA.

Explore: SSC CGL hub · Syllabus & pattern · SSC CGL 2024 · How to use PYQs

No official paper released

The conducting body did not publish the SSC CGL 2025 question paper. Practise the SSC CGL 2025 mock paper: original questions modelled on candidate reports, clearly labelled as a mock.

Why this year matters

SSC CGL 2025 is your calibration paper: same-day review matters more than chasing a vanity score. Speed with accuracy is the game. Tag silly misses ruthlessly; they repeat on SSC papers.

Count attempts and accuracy by section. A high raw score with a failed sectional cut-off is still a fail in the real exam.

Paper analysis

Snapshot of SSC CGL 2025

Newest CGL cycle on this hub. Confirm tier design from the live notice; Tier-I speed + GA flavour still dominate early filters.

As the newest SSC CGL paper on this hub, 2025 is your primary difficulty benchmark. Score it cold, then rebuild confidence with a slightly older year rather than jumping into random mocks.

What this paper stresses

  • Quant silly misses at high attempt rates.
  • Shift normalisation anxiety that wrecks accuracy.
  • English error patterns that repeat every year.
  • GA current + static mix that coaching dumps mis-weight.

What to extract before you move on

  • Quant chapters producing silly misses.
  • English error rules worth a one-page sheet.
  • Attempt-rate targets per section under current negatives.
  • GA static lists that actually appeared (not the 200-page PDF).

How 2025 sits next to other years

After you log 2025, move to SSC CGL 2024, SSC CGL 2023, SSC CGL 2022 to see which weaknesses were paper-specific versus systemic.

Analyst note: The conducting body did not publish the SSC CGL 2025 paper. The mock below is original practice in the reported pattern; treat coaching “memory-based” papers as unofficial reconstructions.

SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I mock paper (modelled on candidate reports)

This is a mock paper we wrote. The official 2025 paper was never released.The conducting body has not published it. These 20 questions are original, written by previousyearquestions.app to match what candidates and exam analyses reported about the 2025 exam: section mix, topics and difficulty. Use it to practise the pattern. The questions themselves are not from the real exam.

SSC has not released CGL question papers publicly since the exam moved online: from 2016 the question paper and key are shown only inside each candidate's login for a few days, and SSC's notices describe the saved copy as for personal use. The ssc.gov.in 'Previous Year Question Paper' page holds only a 2011 generic model paper, so there is no official 2025 paper to host. SSC also asked candidates not to share or discuss the 2025 questions. This original 20-question mini-paper is modelled on reported analyses of the computer-based Tier-I held from 12 to 26 September 2025 (with some cancelled centre sittings re-held later).

What candidates reported about 2025

  • Tier-I was a computer-based test held from 12 to 26 September 2025 in three one-hour shifts a day, after being moved from its August slot; some centre sittings hit by technical problems were cancelled and rescheduled.
  • Pattern unchanged: 100 questions (25 per section) for 200 marks in 60 minutes, with 0.50 mark deducted per wrong answer.
  • Overall difficulty was rated moderate; an estimate for the first shift put good attempts at about 71 to 76.
  • General Awareness was again the toughest section (rated moderate to difficult in the opening shift).
  • Quantitative Aptitude was described as the most scoring section, with mensuration (volume and surface area), ratio, algebra and simplification mentioned.
  • English was called lengthy: candidates reported three to four comprehension passages, parajumbles and error-spotting questions.
  • Reasoning was rated easy by some candidates and moderate by others.

Suggested time: 12 minutes. Practice set of 20 questions, 5 from each section (the real Tier-I had 100 questions, 25 per section, in 60 minutes); allow about 12 minutes. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and 0.50 mark is deducted for each wrong answer; unattempted questions carry no penalty. Sections are in the real exam's order; there was no sectional time limit in Tier-I.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second is related to the first. ACE : BDF :: GIK : ?

    1. HJL
    2. HIK
    3. GJL
    4. IKM
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (HJL)

    Each letter moves one place forward: A→B, C→D, E→F. So G→H, I→J, K→L gives HJL.

  2. If '+' means '×', '×' means '−', '−' means '÷' and '÷' means '+', what is the value of 18 − 3 + 4 ÷ 6 × 5?

    1. 23
    2. 25
    3. 27
    4. 29
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (25)

    Replacing the signs: 18 ÷ 3 × 4 + 6 − 5. Division and multiplication first: 18 ÷ 3 = 6, 6 × 4 = 24. Then 24 + 6 − 5 = 25.

  3. Read the statements and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Some rings are gold. No gold is silver. Conclusions: I. Some rings are not silver. II. No ring is silver.

    1. Neither I nor II follows
    2. Both I and II follow
    3. Only conclusion II follows
    4. Only conclusion I follows
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Only conclusion I follows)

    The rings that are gold cannot be silver (no gold is silver), so some rings are certainly not silver: I follows. Other rings may or may not be silver, so II does not follow.

  4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the series? 4, 9, 25, 49, 121, ?

    1. 144
    2. 169
    3. 196
    4. 225
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (169)

    The terms are squares of consecutive primes: 2², 3², 5², 7², 11². The next prime is 13, and 13² = 169.

  5. Arrange the following words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary. 1. Lantern 2. Lance 3. Landing 4. Lantana 5. Lancet

    1. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
    2. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
    3. 2, 5, 3, 4, 1
    4. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (2, 5, 3, 4, 1)

    All begin with 'lan'. Lance comes before Lancet (shorter prefix first); 'land' (d) follows 'lanc' (c); 'lant' comes last, and Lantana (a) precedes Lantern (e). Order: Lance, Lancet, Landing, Lantana, Lantern = 2, 5, 3, 4, 1.

General Awareness

  1. Under which Article of the Constitution of India does the President constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier?

    1. Article 148
    2. Article 266
    3. Article 280
    4. Article 324
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (Article 280)

    Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission, appointed by the President every five years or earlier; the 16th Finance Commission is chaired by Arvind Panagariya. Article 148 is the CAG, 266 the Consolidated Fund and 324 the Election Commission.

  2. Mahatma Gandhi began the Salt March (Dandi March) on 12 March 1930 from which place?

    1. Sabarmati Ashram, Ahmedabad
    2. Sevagram Ashram, Wardha
    3. Phoenix Settlement, Durban
    4. Champaran, Bihar
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (Sabarmati Ashram, Ahmedabad)

    The Salt March set out from Sabarmati Ashram near Ahmedabad on 12 March 1930, reached Dandi on 5 April and Gandhi broke the salt law on 6 April 1930.

  3. Which metal ion lies at the centre of the chlorophyll molecule?

    1. Iron
    2. Zinc
    3. Copper
    4. Magnesium
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Magnesium)

    Chlorophyll binds a magnesium ion (Mg²⁺) at its centre; haem in haemoglobin binds iron instead.

  4. Which strait separates Tamil Nadu in India from Sri Lanka?

    1. Strait of Malacca
    2. Palk Strait
    3. Ten Degree Channel
    4. Strait of Hormuz
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (Palk Strait)

    The Palk Strait lies between Tamil Nadu (Pamban Island) and Sri Lanka's Northern Province (Mannar Island).

  5. In the final of the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 played in Dubai on 9 March 2025, India defeated which team?

    1. Pakistan
    2. Australia
    3. New Zealand
    4. South Africa
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (New Zealand)

    India chased New Zealand's 251/7 to win by 4 wickets at Dubai International Cricket Stadium on 9 March 2025; Rohit Sharma (76) was Player of the Match.

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. What is the total surface area of a closed cylinder of radius 7 cm and height 10 cm? (Take π = 22/7)

    1. 616 cm²
    2. 704 cm²
    3. 748 cm²
    4. 770 cm²
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (748 cm²)

    Total surface area = 2πr(r + h) = 2 × 22/7 × 7 × (7 + 10) = 44 × 17 = 748 cm².

  2. A solid metal cube of edge 12 cm is melted and recast into small cubes of edge 3 cm each. How many small cubes are formed?

    1. 16
    2. 32
    3. 48
    4. 64
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (64)

    Volume of big cube = 12³ = 1728 cm³. Volume of a small cube = 3³ = 27 cm³. Number = 1728 ÷ 27 = 64.

  3. Simplify: 48 ÷ 6 × 3 + 15 − 2² × 5

    1. 19
    2. 21
    3. 29
    4. 9
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (19)

    Power first: 2² = 4. Then left to right for ÷ and ×: 48 ÷ 6 = 8, 8 × 3 = 24; 4 × 5 = 20. Finally 24 + 15 − 20 = 19.

  4. If a + b = 9 and ab = 14, what is the value of a² + b²?

    1. 49
    2. 53
    3. 57
    4. 67
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (53)

    a² + b² = (a + b)² − 2ab = 81 − 28 = 53.

  5. The incomes of P and Q are in the ratio 5 : 7 and their expenditures are in the ratio 3 : 5. If each of them saves ₹4,000, what is P's income?

    1. ₹12,000
    2. ₹14,000
    3. ₹8,000
    4. ₹10,000
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (₹10,000)

    Let incomes be 5x, 7x and expenditures 3y, 5y. Then 5x − 3y = 4000 and 7x − 5y = 4000. Subtracting gives 2x − 2y = 0, so x = y, and 5x − 3x = 4000 gives x = 2000. P's income = 5 × 2000 = ₹10,000 (check: Q earns 14,000, spends 10,000, saves 4,000).

English Comprehension

Reading comprehension

When the city of Tarapur began handing out free saplings for rooftops, few residents expected much to change. Flat concrete roofs had always been used for drying clothes and storing broken furniture. Within three summers, however, more than two thousand roofs carried pots of tulsi, chillies and climbing beans.

The gardens did more than supply vegetables. Residents noticed that rooms below planted roofs stayed noticeably cooler in May, and sparrows, which many had not seen for years, returned to feed on the insects among the plants. Neighbours who had never spoken began trading seeds and advice over the parapet walls.

The municipal officers who designed the scheme admit that they had aimed only at greening the skyline. The social benefits, they say, were a happy accident.

  1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?

    1. Concrete roofs are unsuitable for growing vegetables.
    2. A rooftop sapling scheme brought environmental and social benefits beyond its original aim.
    3. Sparrows have disappeared from most Indian cities.
    4. Municipal officers planned the scheme mainly to bring neighbours together.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (A rooftop sapling scheme brought environmental and social benefits beyond its original aim.)

    The passage describes cooler rooms, returning sparrows and friendlier neighbours, and ends by noting these went beyond the officers' aim of greening the skyline. Option D contradicts the last paragraph.

  2. As used in the passage, the phrase 'a happy accident' means:

    1. a planned success
    2. an unfortunate mistake
    3. a fortunate result that was not intended
    4. a minor injury
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (a fortunate result that was not intended)

    The officers say they aimed only at greening; the social benefits were good outcomes they had not planned, i.e. a fortunate, unintended result.

  1. The first sentence (S1) is given. Arrange parts P, Q, R and S in a logical sequence. S1: Ananya wanted to learn the violin. P: Her teacher advised her to practise for twenty minutes every day. Q: So she borrowed an old instrument from her uncle. R: By the end of the year, she could play simple tunes. S: But her parents could not afford to buy one.

    1. SQPR
    2. QSPR
    3. SPQR
    4. PSQR
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (SQPR)

    She wanted to learn (S1), but could not afford a violin (S), so she borrowed one (Q); her teacher then set a practice routine (P), and by the year's end she could play (R): S, Q, P, R.

  2. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. Neither the manager nor his assistants / was present / at the meeting / held on Monday.

    1. Neither the manager nor his assistants
    2. was present
    3. at the meeting
    4. held on Monday
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (was present)

    With 'neither … nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. 'Assistants' is plural, so it should be 'were present'.

  3. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. A person who can speak two languages fluently

    1. Polyglot
    2. Linguist
    3. Monolingual
    4. Bilingual
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Bilingual)

    Bilingual means able to speak two languages fluently. A polyglot knows many languages, a linguist studies languages, and monolingual means speaking only one.

Reports this mock is modelled on

How to sit SSC CGL 2025

  1. Work through the mock paper above under exam timing. It follows the reported pattern, but the questions are our own.
  2. Sit the paper under current brochure rules (timers, negatives, NAT/MSQ norms), even if 2025’s interface looked different.
  3. When the clock ends, stop. Review should take at least as long as the attempt.
  4. Fill the error log the same day: section, topic, and miss type (concept, silly, time, or misread).
  5. Next session, repair only logged items. Then pick another year from the decade list.

Other years in this decade

FAQ

Where can I download the official SSC CGL 2025 question paper?

The conducting body did not release it publicly. This page has a clearly labelled mock paper modelled on candidate reports instead.

What does the SSC CGL 2025 paper analysis include?

A year snapshot, what the paper stresses, what to extract into your error log, and how 2025 compares with neighbouring years on this hub.

How should I practise the SSC CGL 2025 previous year paper?

Open the official PDF, sit it timed under current brochure rules, fill an error log the same day, read the paper analysis, then move to another year in the decade list.

Is SSC CGL 2025 still useful if I finished newer papers?

Yes. Recent years sharpen timing; stack them after a same-day review of each attempt.

Are memory-based SSC CGL 2025 papers reliable?

Treat memory-based sets as interim. Reconcile contested items with official keys or response sheets when the conducting body publishes them.

Where is the SSC CGL syllabus and pattern for this paper?

See the SSC CGL syllabus & pattern page on this hub, and always re-check the latest official brochure before exam day.