Labelled mock paper

SSC CGL 2022 Previous Year Question Paper

SSC CGL 2022 question paper was never officially released. Practise our labelled 2022 mock: 20 questions with answers, built on the reported pattern.

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No official SSC CGL 2022 paper was released.Practise the labelled mock paper built from that year's reported pattern.Open mock

The SSC CGL 2022 question paper was not officially published, so this page does not host it. Instead it has a clearly labelled mock paper with original questions modelled on the reported 2022 pattern, plus a timed attempt plan and an error-log routine. The SSC CGL exam covers Quant, Reasoning, English and GA.

Explore: SSC CGL hub · Syllabus & pattern · SSC CGL 2025 · How to use PYQs

No official paper released

The conducting body did not publish the SSC CGL 2022 question paper. Practise the SSC CGL 2022 mock paper: original questions modelled on candidate reports, clearly labelled as a mock.

Why this year matters

SSC CGL 2022 is where weightage maps start to get honest. Themes that survive three to five years are usually worth deliberate revision. Speed with accuracy is the game. Tag silly misses ruthlessly; they repeat on SSC papers.

Count attempts and accuracy by section. A high raw score with a failed sectional cut-off is still a fail in the real exam.

Paper analysis

Snapshot of SSC CGL 2022

Good second timed Tier-I after the newest year.

2022 is a mid-decade stress test. Difficulty spikes here usually come from topic mix and selection pressure, not from obsolete exam software.

What this paper stresses

  • Shift normalisation anxiety that wrecks accuracy.
  • English error patterns that repeat every year.
  • GA current + static mix that coaching dumps mis-weight.
  • Quant silly misses at high attempt rates.

What to extract before you move on

  • English error rules worth a one-page sheet.
  • Attempt-rate targets per section under current negatives.
  • GA static lists that actually appeared (not the 200-page PDF).
  • Quant chapters producing silly misses.

How 2022 sits next to other years

Compare 2022 with SSC CGL 2025, SSC CGL 2024, SSC CGL 2023. Themes that repeat across this band deserve deliberate notes; one-off oddities do not.

Analyst note: The conducting body did not publish the SSC CGL 2022 paper. The mock below is original practice in the reported pattern; treat coaching “memory-based” papers as unofficial reconstructions.

SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I mock paper (modelled on candidate reports)

This is a mock paper we wrote. The official 2022 paper was never released.The conducting body has not published it. These 20 questions are original, written by previousyearquestions.app to match what candidates and exam analyses reported about the 2022 exam: section mix, topics and difficulty. Use it to practise the pattern. The questions themselves are not from the real exam.

Since it moved to computer-based tests, SSC has not published CGL question papers publicly: each candidate can see their own response sheet and the provisional key only inside their login for a few days, for personal use, and ssc.gov.in's previous-year page holds only an old generic model paper. This original 20-question mini-paper follows exam analyses of the CGL 2022 Tier-I computer-based test held from 1 to 13 December 2022, the first under the revised pattern in which Tier-I is qualifying.

What candidates reported about 2022

  • CGL 2022 Tier-I was held online from 1 to 13 December 2022, in four shifts a day.
  • Under the revised scheme Tier-I became a qualifying screening test; it still had 100 questions (25 per section) in 60 minutes, +2 per correct answer and −0.50 per wrong answer.
  • Overall difficulty was reported as easy to moderate on day 1 and moderate on later days, with good attempts around 72-85.
  • Quantitative Aptitude was the section most often called moderate: trigonometry (about 3), mensuration, profit and loss, number system, unit digit and ratio.
  • Reasoning leaned on coding-decoding (up to 5 questions), blood relations, series and mirror images, with single syllogism, Venn and paper-folding questions.
  • English had a cloze test, several error-spotting items, active/passive voice, antonyms, idioms and one-word substitution.
  • General Awareness featured history, polity (including Supreme Court articles), classical dances and the new CDS appointment among current affairs, plus biology and chemistry.

Suggested time: 12 minutes. Tier-I 2022 (held December 2022; qualifying in nature) was a computer-based test of 100 questions (25 per section) in 60 minutes, worth 200 marks. For this 20-question mock allow 12 minutes. Each question has four options with one correct answer; +2 for a correct answer and −0.50 for a wrong one; unattempted questions score zero.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. If PAINT is written as 16-1-9-14-20 in a certain code, how will BRUSH be written in that code?

    1. 2-18-20-19-8
    2. 2-17-21-19-8
    3. 2-18-21-19-8
    4. 2-18-21-18-8
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (2-18-21-19-8)

    Each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet: B = 2, R = 18, U = 21, S = 19, H = 8.

  2. In a certain code language, 'sky is blue' is written as 'ta na pa', 'blue sea' as 'pa ke', and 'sea is deep' as 'ke na lo'. What is the code for 'sky'?

    1. na
    2. pa
    3. ke
    4. ta
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (ta)

    'blue' is common to sentences 1 and 2, as is 'pa', so blue = pa. 'sea' is common to 2 and 3 with 'ke', so sea = ke. 'is' is common to 1 and 3 with 'na', so is = na. The remaining code in sentence 1, 'ta', stands for sky.

  3. If A + B means A is the mother of B, A − B means A is the brother of B, and A × B means A is the father of B, then in P + Q − R × S, how is P related to S?

    1. Grandmother
    2. Mother
    3. Aunt
    4. Sister
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (Grandmother)

    P is the mother of Q; Q is the brother of R, so P is also R's mother; R is the father of S. So P is S's father's mother, i.e. grandmother.

  4. A clock shows 3:40. What time will its mirror image (mirror placed vertically) show?

    1. 9:20
    2. 8:20
    3. 8:40
    4. 7:20
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (8:20)

    For a vertical mirror, mirror time = 11:60 − actual time = 11:60 − 3:40 = 8:20.

  5. Statements: Some cats are dogs. No dog is a rat. Conclusions: I. Some cats are not rats. II. No cat is a rat. Which conclusion(s) follow?

    1. Only II follows
    2. Both I and II follow
    3. Only I follows
    4. Neither I nor II follows
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (Only I follows)

    The cats that are dogs cannot be rats, so some cats are definitely not rats: I follows. Other cats may or may not be rats, so II does not follow.

General Awareness

  1. Who became the 15th President of India in July 2022?

    1. Ram Nath Kovind
    2. Pratibha Patil
    3. Droupadi Murmu
    4. Venkaiah Naidu
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (Droupadi Murmu)

    Droupadi Murmu, earlier Governor of Jharkhand (2015-2021), assumed office as the 15th President of India in July 2022, succeeding Ram Nath Kovind.

  2. INS Vikrant, commissioned on 2 September 2022 at Kochi, is significant because it is India's

    1. first nuclear-powered submarine
    2. first indigenously built aircraft carrier
    3. first stealth frigate
    4. largest coast guard vessel
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (first indigenously built aircraft carrier)

    INS Vikrant, built by Cochin Shipyard Limited and commissioned on 2 September 2022, is the first aircraft carrier built in India.

  3. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the President seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact of public importance?

    1. Article 143
    2. Article 32
    3. Article 123
    4. Article 136
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (Article 143)

    Article 143 gives the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction: the President may refer such questions to it for its opinion. Article 32 is constitutional remedies, 123 is ordinances and 136 is special leave to appeal.

  4. Kathakali, one of the classical dances of India, belongs to which state?

    1. Tamil Nadu
    2. Odisha
    3. Andhra Pradesh
    4. Kerala
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Kerala)

    Kathakali is native to Kerala and is one of India's recognised classical dance forms.

  5. Which cell organelle is the site of protein synthesis?

    1. Ribosome
    2. Lysosome
    3. Golgi apparatus
    4. Centrosome
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (Ribosome)

    Ribosomes read messenger RNA and join amino acids into polypeptide chains (translation), so they are the site of protein synthesis.

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. If tan θ = 8/15 (θ acute), what is the value of sin θ + cos θ?

    1. 23/15
    2. 17/23
    3. 23/17
    4. 7/17
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (23/17)

    With opposite 8 and adjacent 15, hypotenuse = √(64 + 225) = √289 = 17. sin θ + cos θ = 8/17 + 15/17 = 23/17.

  2. What is the value of (1 − sin²θ) sec²θ?

    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. sin²θ
    4. tan²θ
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (1)

    1 − sin²θ = cos²θ, and cos²θ × sec²θ = cos²θ × 1/cos²θ = 1.

  3. What is the unit digit of 7⁹⁵?

    1. 1
    2. 7
    3. 9
    4. 3
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (3)

    Unit digits of powers of 7 repeat in a cycle of 4: 7, 9, 3, 1. 95 = 4 × 23 + 3, so the unit digit is the third in the cycle, 3.

  4. A right circular cone has base radius 6 cm and height 8 cm. What is its total surface area?

    1. 96π cm²
    2. 60π cm²
    3. 120π cm²
    4. 84π cm²
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (96π cm²)

    Slant height l = √(6² + 8²) = 10 cm. Total surface area = πr(l + r) = π × 6 × (10 + 6) = 96π cm².

  5. What is the largest number that divides 245 and 1029 leaving a remainder of 5 in each case?

    1. 8
    2. 32
    3. 16
    4. 12
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (16)

    The number must divide 245 − 5 = 240 and 1029 − 5 = 1024 exactly. HCF(240, 1024): 240 = 2⁴ × 15 and 1024 = 2¹⁰, so HCF = 2⁴ = 16.

English Comprehension

  1. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error. One of my friends / have gone / to Shimla / for a holiday.

    1. One of my friends
    2. have gone
    3. to Shimla
    4. for a holiday
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (have gone)

    The subject is 'One' (singular), so the verb must be 'has gone', not 'have gone'.

  2. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Who wrote this letter?

    1. By whom was this letter written?
    2. By whom this letter was written?
    3. Who was written this letter by?
    4. By whom has this letter been wrote?
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (By whom was this letter written?)

    In the passive, 'who' becomes 'by whom', and the simple past 'wrote' becomes 'was written' in question order: By whom was this letter written?

  3. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Transparent

    1. Clear
    2. Opaque
    3. Visible
    4. Bright
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (Opaque)

    Transparent means letting light pass through so that objects behind can be seen; opaque means not letting light through.

  4. Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom. To burn the midnight oil

    1. To waste money
    2. To set something on fire
    3. To work or study late into the night
    4. To lose one's temper
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (To work or study late into the night)

    'To burn the midnight oil' means to stay up late working or studying.

  5. Select the word that can substitute the given group of words. A person who does not believe in the existence of God

    1. Theist
    2. Agnostic
    3. Pagan
    4. Atheist
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Atheist)

    An atheist does not believe God exists. A theist believes in God, and an agnostic holds that God's existence cannot be known.

Reports this mock is modelled on

How to sit SSC CGL 2022

  1. Work through the mock paper above under exam timing. It follows the reported pattern, but the questions are our own.
  2. Sit the paper under current brochure rules (timers, negatives, NAT/MSQ norms), even if 2022’s interface looked different.
  3. When the clock ends, stop. Review should take at least as long as the attempt.
  4. Fill the error log the same day: section, topic, and miss type (concept, silly, time, or misread).
  5. Next session, repair only logged items. Then pick another year from the decade list.

Other years in this decade

FAQ

Where can I download the official SSC CGL 2022 question paper?

The conducting body did not release it publicly. This page has a clearly labelled mock paper modelled on candidate reports instead.

What does the SSC CGL 2022 paper analysis include?

A year snapshot, what the paper stresses, what to extract into your error log, and how 2022 compares with neighbouring years on this hub.

How should I practise the SSC CGL 2022 previous year paper?

Open the official PDF, sit it timed under current brochure rules, fill an error log the same day, read the paper analysis, then move to another year in the decade list.

Is SSC CGL 2022 still useful if I finished newer papers?

Yes. Recent years sharpen timing; stack them after a same-day review of each attempt.

Are memory-based SSC CGL 2022 papers reliable?

Treat memory-based sets as interim. Reconcile contested items with official keys or response sheets when the conducting body publishes them.

Where is the SSC CGL syllabus and pattern for this paper?

See the SSC CGL syllabus & pattern page on this hub, and always re-check the latest official brochure before exam day.