The IBPS PO 2016 question paper was not officially published, so this page does not host it. Instead it has a clearly labelled mock paper with original questions modelled on the reported 2016 pattern, plus a timed attempt plan and an error-log routine. The IBPS PO exam covers English, Quant, Reasoning, GA/Banking and Descriptive.
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No official paper released
IBPS did not publish the IBPS PO 2016 question paper. Practise the IBPS PO 2016 mock paper: original questions modelled on candidate reports, clearly labelled as a mock.
Why this year matters
Older IBPS PO papers like 2016 are for mining, not nostalgia. Keep current marking rules, and skip topics the latest brochure dropped. Sectional timing and cut-offs matter as much as raw accuracy. Track attempts per section, not just the total.
Count attempts and accuracy by section. A high raw score with a failed sectional cut-off is still a fail in the real exam.
Paper analysis
Snapshot of IBPS PO 2016
Deep archive PO.
2016 may feel differently paced than the newest cycle. Borrow stamina and theme lessons; do not copy obsolete section orders or marking quirks.
What this paper stresses
- Sectional cut-off failures despite a decent overall.
- Puzzle / DI sets that should have been abandoned earlier.
- English error-spotting under speed pressure.
- Mains vs Prelims difficulty mismatch (especially SBI / RBI).
What to extract before you move on
- Puzzle / DI patterns that beat you when you overstay.
- Sectional attempt targets that still clear cut-offs in mocks.
- English miss taxonomy (grammar vs vocab vs RC).
- Prelims vs Mains repair queues kept as separate lists.
How 2016 sits next to other years
Use 2016 only after IBPS PO 2024, IBPS PO 2023, IBPS PO 2022 are logged. Archive years are for frequency maps, not for predicting tomorrow’s cut-off.
Analyst note: IBPS did not publish the IBPS PO 2016 paper. The mock below is original practice in the reported pattern; treat coaching “memory-based” papers as unofficial reconstructions.
IBPS PO 2016 Prelims mock paper (modelled on candidate reports)
IBPS does not publish the question papers of its PO preliminary examination, so no official 2016 paper exists to host. This is an original mock mini-paper modelled on candidate and coaching analyses of the CWE PO/MT-VI Prelims held in October 2016: 100 questions across English, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning in one composite hour.
What candidates reported about 2016
- Prelims (CWE PO/MT-VI) held over several slots on 16, 22 and 23 October 2016; 100 questions: English 30, Quantitative Aptitude 35, Reasoning 35.
- One composite 60-minute clock (most analyses date sectional timing for IBPS PO Prelims to 2017); 1 mark per question and 0.25 negative marking.
- Overall rated moderate; English in the 22 October slot 4 was rated moderate to difficult.
- Good attempts were put at roughly 15–20 in English, 20–24 in Reasoning and 20–23 in Quant.
- Quant mixed a table-based DI set with number series (missing term), simplification or approximation, quadratic comparisons and arithmetic word problems.
- Reasoning was led by floor and seating puzzles, with syllogism, inequality and short order-ranking or direction questions.
- English carried a reading comprehension with fill-in-the-blank, error spotting and sentence rearrangement.
Suggested time: 17 minutes. Practice set of 28 questions (the real Prelims had 100 in 60 minutes). In 2016 there was one composite clock, so you may move between sections freely; allow about 17 minutes. Each correct answer earns 1 mark; 0.25 mark is deducted for each wrong answer; unattempted questions carry no penalty.
English Language
Reading comprehension
In many villages the day begins and ends at the milk collection centre. Twice a day farmers carry their cans to the society's counter, and the cooperative model that runs these centres rests on a simple promise: the farmer is paid according to the quantity and the fat content of the milk she pours, and a share of the society's surplus comes back to her at the end of the year. Before such societies existed, a private trader often fixed the price only after the milk had been handed over, and a farmer holding a perishable product with no other buyer nearby had little choice but to accept it.
Testing at the point of collection changed that bargain. When fat content is measured in front of the farmer and the reading is printed on a slip, the price is no longer a matter of the trader's word. Quality improved as well, because watered milk shows up at once in a lower reading and therefore a lower payment.
The model has its weaknesses. A society that sells to a single dairy union is exposed when the union, faced with a glut in the flush season, cuts procurement prices or declares holidays on collection. Chilling capacity at village level is still thin, so milk collected in the evening may sour before it reaches the plant. And where elections to society boards are captured by a few large producers, the smallest suppliers, often women with one or two animals, find their voice weaker than their numbers suggest. A cooperative is only as fair as the people who run it.
According to the passage, what most strengthened the farmer's position in the bargain over price?
- The annual share of the society's surplus
- The private trader's offer to buy the entire stock
- Measuring fat content in front of the farmer and printing the reading on a slip
- Holidays on collection declared by the dairy union
- The election of large producers to society boards
Answer and explanation
Answer: C (Measuring fat content in front of the farmer and printing the reading on a slip)
Paragraph 2 says testing at collection 'changed that bargain': with the reading measured in front of the farmer and printed, the price was 'no longer a matter of the trader's word'.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a weakness of the cooperative model?
- Price cuts by a single dairy union during a glut
- Too little chilling capacity at village level
- Competition from cheap imported milk powder
- Capture of society boards by a few large producers
- Holidays on collection in the flush season
Answer and explanation
Answer: C (Competition from cheap imported milk powder)
Paragraph 3 lists price cuts and collection holidays by the union, thin chilling capacity, and capture of boards by large producers. Imported milk powder is never mentioned.
Choose the word most similar in meaning to 'glut' as used in the passage.
- shortage
- surplus
- strike
- delay
- decline
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (surplus)
A glut in the flush season (when animals give the most milk) is an oversupply, which is why the union cuts prices. 'Surplus' is the closest; 'shortage' and 'decline' are opposites, and 'strike' and 'delay' do not fit.
What can be inferred about a farmer who adds water to her milk at a society that tests at collection?
- She will be paid less because the fat reading will fall
- She will earn more because the quantity of milk rises
- She will be expelled from the society
- Her payment will not change because the price is fixed in advance
- Her milk will be rejected by the dairy union
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (She will be paid less because the fat reading will fall)
Paragraph 2: 'watered milk shows up at once in a lower reading and therefore a lower payment'. Expulsion and rejection are not mentioned, and payment depends on fat content, not on quantity alone.
Fill in the blank
Choose the word that best fills the blank: The new procurement scheme proved so ______ for small farmers that villages in the neighbouring district asked for it to be extended to them.
- cumbersome
- lucrative
- punitive
- obscure
- erratic
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (lucrative)
Neighbouring villages asking for the scheme implies it was clearly beneficial; 'lucrative' (profitable) fits. Cumbersome, punitive, obscure and erratic would make others avoid it, not ask for it.
Error spotting
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The number of farmers who (A) / sell their milk to the society (B) / have risen sharply (C) / over the past three years. (D) / No error (E)
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Answer and explanation
Answer: C (C)
The subject is 'The number', which is singular ('of farmers' only qualifies it). So part C should read 'has risen sharply'.
Sentence rearrangement
Rearrange the sentences into a meaningful paragraph.
A. With fewer people at the counter, the staff found time to explain loan products to visitors. B. The branch had long been known for its slow service. C. Last year it installed a passbook-printing kiosk and a cash deposit machine. D. Encouraged by these results, the bank plans to install similar machines in twenty more branches. E. Customers who once waited an hour at the counter now finished routine tasks at the machines in minutes.
Which sentence comes FOURTH after rearrangement?
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (A)
The order is B-C-E-A-D: the problem (B), the machines installed (C), customers move to the machines (E), which leaves fewer people at the counter (A), and the bank's response to 'these results' (D). The fourth sentence is A.
Phrase replacement
Choose the option that should replace the bracketed part, if needed. Hardly had the inspector left the branch [than the alarm went off].
- when the alarm went off
- then the alarm went off
- that the alarm went off
- while the alarm had gone off
- No replacement required
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (when the alarm went off)
'Hardly' (like 'scarcely') pairs with 'when'; 'than' goes with 'no sooner'. So the correct form is 'Hardly had the inspector left the branch when the alarm went off'.
Quantitative Aptitude
Data interpretation (table)
The table shows the number of scooters produced and sold by five companies in a year (figures in thousands).
| Company | Production ('000) | Sales ('000) |
|---|---|---|
| Alpha | 450 | 396 |
| Beta | 380 | 323 |
| Gamma | 520 | 494 |
| Delta | 300 | 270 |
| Sigma | 600 | 510 |
Which company sold the highest percentage of its production?
- Alpha
- Beta
- Gamma
- Delta
- Sigma
Answer and explanation
Answer: C (Gamma)
Sales as % of production: Alpha 396/450 = 88%, Beta 323/380 = 85%, Gamma 494/520 = 95%, Delta 270/300 = 90%, Sigma 510/600 = 85%. Highest: Gamma.
What is the total number of unsold scooters of all five companies together (in thousands)?
- 263
- 257
- 247
- 282
- 271
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (257)
Unsold = production − sales: 54 + 57 + 26 + 30 + 90 = 257 thousand.
What is the ratio of the sales of Beta to the sales of Sigma?
- 17 : 30
- 19 : 30
- 19 : 32
- 38 : 51
- 17 : 25
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (19 : 30)
Beta sales : Sigma sales = 323 : 510; dividing both by 17 gives 19 : 30.
What is the average sales of the five companies (in thousands)?
- 398.6
- 396.4
- 392.6
- 401.2
- 403.8
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (398.6)
Total sales = 396 + 323 + 494 + 270 + 510 = 1993; average = 1993 ÷ 5 = 398.6 thousand.
Quadratic equations
In each question two equations (I and II) are given. Solve both and mark the correct relationship between x and y.
Solve both equations and choose the correct relationship between x and y. I. x² − 11x + 30 = 0 II. y² − 9y + 20 = 0
- x > y
- x ≥ y
- x < y
- x ≤ y
- x = y or the relationship cannot be established
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (x ≥ y)
I: x = 5, 6. II: y = 4, 5. Comparing every pair of values gives: x ≥ y.
Solve both equations and choose the correct relationship between x and y. I. 2x² − 3x − 20 = 0 II. y² − 13y + 42 = 0
- x > y
- x ≥ y
- x < y
- x ≤ y
- x = y or the relationship cannot be established
Answer and explanation
Answer: C (x < y)
I: x = -5/2, 4. II: y = 6, 7. Comparing every pair of values gives: x < y.
Number series
What should come in place of the question mark? 3, 4, 12, 45, ?, 1005
- 186
- 196
- 201
- 208
- 192
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (196)
Rule: ×1 + 1², ×2 + 2², ×3 + 3², ×4 + 4², ×5 + 5². 3×1+1 = 4, 4×2+4 = 12, 12×3+9 = 45, 45×4+16 = 196; check 196×5+25 = 1005.
Simplification and approximation
What should come in place of the question mark? (√1764 + 18²) ÷ 6 − 3/4 of 48 = ?
- 31
- 23
- 27
- 19
- 25
Answer and explanation
Answer: E (25)
√1764 = 42 and 18² = 324, so (42 + 324) ÷ 6 = 61. 3/4 of 48 = 36. 61 − 36 = 25.
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark? 17.98 × 24.03 − 15.02% of 1199.8 + 63.9 ÷ 8.02 = ?
- 220
- 300
- 280
- 260
- 240
Answer and explanation
Answer: D (260)
≈ 18 × 24 − 15% of 1200 + 64 ÷ 8 = 432 − 180 + 8 = 260.
Arithmetic
A can finish a job in 12 days and B in 18 days. They work together for 4 days, after which A leaves. In how many more days will B finish the remaining work?
- 8 days
- 10 days
- 6 days
- 9 days
- 7 days
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (8 days)
Together per day = 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36. In 4 days they do 20/36 = 5/9. Remaining = 4/9, which B alone does in 4/9 × 18 = 8 days.
Reasoning Ability
Floor puzzle
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on different floors of a seven-storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1 and the top floor 7. Each of them likes a different colour: Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, White, Black and Pink.
R lives on the lowest floor. Two persons live between R and the one who likes Black. The person who likes Yellow lives immediately above R. P lives on an even-numbered floor, immediately above the person who likes Pink, and below the person who likes Red. V likes Red. Q lives immediately above V. T lives on a floor above Q. S lives immediately below U. The person who likes White lives immediately below the person who likes Green, and Green is liked by someone on an odd-numbered floor. The person who likes Pink does not live on the lowest floor.
Who lives on the floor immediately above the person who likes Black?
- Q
- U
- T
- S
- V
Answer and explanation
Answer: E (V)
R is on floor 1, so Yellow is on 2 and Black on 4. P is on an even floor directly above Pink, and Pink is not on floor 1, so P is on 4 (likes Black) and Pink is on 3, or P is on 6 with Pink on 5; but V (Red) must be above P and Q directly above V with T above Q, which leaves no room if P is on 6. So P = 4, V (Red) = 5, Q = 6, T = 7. S directly below U puts S on 2 (Yellow) and U on 3 (Pink). Green is on an odd floor with White directly below it: Green 7 (T), White 6 (Q). R likes Blue. Final: floor 7: T (Green); floor 6: Q (White); floor 5: V (Red); floor 4: P (Black); floor 3: U (Pink); floor 2: S (Yellow); floor 1: R (Blue). Above floor 4 is V.
Which colour does S like?
- Pink
- Yellow
- Blue
- White
- Black
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (Yellow)
R is on floor 1, so Yellow is on 2 and Black on 4. P is on an even floor directly above Pink, and Pink is not on floor 1, so P is on 4 (likes Black) and Pink is on 3, or P is on 6 with Pink on 5; but V (Red) must be above P and Q directly above V with T above Q, which leaves no room if P is on 6. So P = 4, V (Red) = 5, Q = 6, T = 7. S directly below U puts S on 2 (Yellow) and U on 3 (Pink). Green is on an odd floor with White directly below it: Green 7 (T), White 6 (Q). R likes Blue. Final: floor 7: T (Green); floor 6: Q (White); floor 5: V (Red); floor 4: P (Black); floor 3: U (Pink); floor 2: S (Yellow); floor 1: R (Blue).
How many persons live between R and the person who likes White?
- 4
- 3
- 2
- 5
- 1
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (4)
R is on floor 1, so Yellow is on 2 and Black on 4. P is on an even floor directly above Pink, and Pink is not on floor 1, so P is on 4 (likes Black) and Pink is on 3, or P is on 6 with Pink on 5; but V (Red) must be above P and Q directly above V with T above Q, which leaves no room if P is on 6. So P = 4, V (Red) = 5, Q = 6, T = 7. S directly below U puts S on 2 (Yellow) and U on 3 (Pink). Green is on an odd floor with White directly below it: Green 7 (T), White 6 (Q). R likes Blue. Final: floor 7: T (Green); floor 6: Q (White); floor 5: V (Red); floor 4: P (Black); floor 3: U (Pink); floor 2: S (Yellow); floor 1: R (Blue). R is on 1 and White on 6: 4 persons between.
Which of the following combinations of floor, person and colour is correct?
- Floor 2 – U – Pink
- Floor 6 – T – White
- Floor 5 – Q – Red
- Floor 3 – S – Blue
- Floor 4 – P – Black
Answer and explanation
Answer: E (Floor 4 – P – Black)
R is on floor 1, so Yellow is on 2 and Black on 4. P is on an even floor directly above Pink, and Pink is not on floor 1, so P is on 4 (likes Black) and Pink is on 3, or P is on 6 with Pink on 5; but V (Red) must be above P and Q directly above V with T above Q, which leaves no room if P is on 6. So P = 4, V (Red) = 5, Q = 6, T = 7. S directly below U puts S on 2 (Yellow) and U on 3 (Pink). Green is on an odd floor with White directly below it: Green 7 (T), White 6 (Q). R likes Blue. Final: floor 7: T (Green); floor 6: Q (White); floor 5: V (Red); floor 4: P (Black); floor 3: U (Pink); floor 2: S (Yellow); floor 1: R (Blue).
Syllogism
Statements: Some cards are files. All files are pens. No pens are books. Conclusions: I. Some cards are not books. II. All files being books is a possibility. Decide which conclusion(s) logically follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
- Only conclusion I follows
- Only conclusion II follows
- Either conclusion I or II follows
- Neither conclusion I nor II follows
- Both conclusions I and II follow
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (Only conclusion I follows)
Some cards are files and all files are pens, so some cards are pens; no pen is a book, so those cards are not books: I follows. All files are pens and no pen is a book, so no file can be a book: II (a possibility) does not follow. Answer: Only conclusion I follows.
Statements: All pens are books. Some books are cards. No cards are files. Conclusions: I. Some pens are cards. II. Some books are not files. Decide which conclusion(s) logically follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
- Only conclusion I follows
- Only conclusion II follows
- Either conclusion I or II follows
- Neither conclusion I nor II follows
- Both conclusions I and II follow
Answer and explanation
Answer: B (Only conclusion II follows)
All pens are books and some books are cards; the cards that are books need not include any pen, so I is not definite. The books that are cards cannot be files (no card is a file), so some books are not files: II follows. Answer: Only conclusion II follows.
Inequality
Statements: A > B ≥ C, C = D < E, F ≤ D. Conclusions: I. A > F II. E > F. Which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true?
- Only conclusion I is true
- Only conclusion II is true
- Either conclusion I or II is true
- Neither conclusion I nor II is true
- Both conclusions I and II are true
Answer and explanation
Answer: E (Both conclusions I and II are true)
A > B ≥ C = D ≥ F gives A > F, so I is true. E > D ≥ F gives E > F, so II is true. Answer: Both conclusions I and II are true.
Statements: M ≤ N < O, O > P ≥ Q, N ≥ R. Conclusions: I. P < N II. P ≥ N. Which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true?
- Only conclusion I is true
- Only conclusion II is true
- Either conclusion I or II is true
- Neither conclusion I nor II is true
- Both conclusions I and II are true
Answer and explanation
Answer: C (Either conclusion I or II is true)
N and P are both below O but have no direct link, so neither 'P < N' nor 'P ≥ N' is definite on its own. Between them they cover every possibility for the same pair, so one of the two must be true. Answer: Either conclusion I or II is true.
Direction sense and order ranking
Ravi walks 14 m towards North, turns right and walks 5 m, turns right again and walks 8 m, then turns left and walks 3 m. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
- 10 m, North-East
- 10 m, South-East
- 14 m, North-East
- 8 m, East
- 6 m, North-West
Answer and explanation
Answer: A (10 m, North-East)
Take the start as (0, 0). North 14 → (0, 14); right (East) 5 → (5, 14); right (South) 8 → (5, 6); left from South is East, 3 → (8, 6). Distance = √(8² + 6²) = √100 = 10 m, towards North-East.
In a row of students, Meena is 14th from the left end and Arjun is 19th from the right end. When they interchange their positions, Meena becomes 22nd from the left end. How many students are there in the row?
- 36
- 33
- 39
- 40
- 41
Answer and explanation
Answer: D (40)
After the swap Meena stands where Arjun stood, so Arjun's old place is 22nd from the left and 19th from the right. Total = 22 + 19 − 1 = 40.
Reports this mock is modelled on
How to sit IBPS PO 2016
- Work through the mock paper above under exam timing. It follows the reported pattern, but the questions are our own.
- Sit the paper under current brochure rules (timers, negatives, NAT/MSQ norms), even if 2016’s interface looked different.
- When the clock ends, stop. Review should take at least as long as the attempt.
- Fill the error log the same day: section, topic, and miss type (concept, silly, time, or misread).
- Next session, repair only logged items. Then pick another year from the decade list.
Other years in this decade
- IBPS PO 2024
- IBPS PO 2023
- IBPS PO 2022
- IBPS PO 2021
- IBPS PO 2020
- IBPS PO 2019
- IBPS PO 2018
- IBPS PO 2017
- IBPS PO 2015
FAQ
Where can I download the official IBPS PO 2016 question paper?
IBPS did not release it publicly. This page has a clearly labelled mock paper modelled on candidate reports instead.
What does the IBPS PO 2016 paper analysis include?
A year snapshot, what the paper stresses, what to extract into your error log, and how 2016 compares with neighbouring years on this hub.
How should I practise the IBPS PO 2016 previous year paper?
Open the official PDF, sit it timed under current brochure rules, fill an error log the same day, read the paper analysis, then move to another year in the decade list.
Is IBPS PO 2016 still useful if I finished newer papers?
Yes, for theme and weightage mining after your newest papers are logged. Skip deleted syllabus pockets.
Are memory-based IBPS PO 2016 papers reliable?
Treat memory-based sets as interim. Reconcile contested items with official keys or response sheets when the conducting body publishes them.
Where is the IBPS PO syllabus and pattern for this paper?
See the IBPS PO syllabus & pattern page on this hub, and always re-check the latest official brochure before exam day.