Labelled mock paper

CAT 2018 Previous Year Question Paper

CAT 2018 question paper was never officially released. Practise our labelled 2018 mock: 20 questions with answers, built on the reported pattern.

Updated3 min read
No official CAT 2018 paper was released.Practise the labelled mock paper built from that year's reported pattern.Open mock

The CAT 2018 question paper was not officially published, so this page does not host it. Instead it has a clearly labelled mock paper with original questions modelled on the reported 2018 pattern, plus a timed attempt plan and an error-log routine. The CAT exam covers Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC), Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR) and Quantitative Ability (QA).

Explore: CAT hub · Syllabus & pattern · CAT 2025 · How to use PYQs

No official paper released

The IIMs did not publish the CAT 2018 question paper. Practise the CAT 2018 mock paper: original questions modelled on candidate reports, clearly labelled as a mock.

Why this year matters

Older CAT papers like 2018 are for mining, not nostalgia. Keep current marking rules, and skip topics the latest brochure dropped. Sectional time limits are non-negotiable. Finish the section you started; do not borrow minutes.

Note which section burned time. On CAT-like papers, one stuck DILR set can erase a good VARC; practise the abandon rule on this year.

Paper analysis

Snapshot of CAT 2018

Older CAT. Mine QA topic gaps; skip any format quirks that no longer match the brochure.

2018 may feel differently paced than the newest cycle. Borrow stamina and theme lessons; do not copy obsolete section orders or marking quirks.

What this paper stresses

  • QA accuracy collapses when you chase attempt count.
  • Sectional timer panic after one bad set.
  • DILR / Decision Making sets that look solvable but are time bombs.
  • VARC inference questions that punish rushing the last paragraph.

What to extract before you move on

  • QA topics that cost marks despite high mock accuracy.
  • Section order rules you will reuse on exam day.
  • Set types you should abandon after a fixed time box.
  • RC tones / DM ethics patterns that recur for you personally.

How 2018 sits next to other years

Use 2018 only after CAT 2025, CAT 2024, CAT 2023 are logged. Archive years are for frequency maps, not for predicting tomorrow’s cut-off.

Analyst note: The IIMs did not publish the CAT 2018 paper. The mock below is original practice in the reported pattern; treat coaching “memory-based” papers as unofficial reconstructions.

CAT 2018 mock paper (modelled on candidate reports)

This is a mock paper we wrote. The official 2018 paper was never released.The conducting body has not published it. These 20 questions are original, written by previousyearquestions.app to match what candidates and exam analyses reported about the 2018 exam: section mix, topics and difficulty. Use it to practise the pattern. The questions themselves are not from the real exam.

The IIMs did not publicly release the CAT 2018 question paper; candidates could only see their own response sheets after logging in, so there is no official copy to host. This original mini-paper is modelled on the structure and difficulty that candidates and coaching analyses reported for slot 1 of CAT 2018.

What candidates reported about 2018

  • The format was again 100 questions (34 VARC, 32 DILR, 34 QA) in 180 minutes, with 60 minutes per section and no negative marking for type-in answers.
  • Several analyses (TIME, Career Launcher) called slot 1 QA the toughest Quant section of the previous four years, with arithmetic and geometry prominent and close, confusing options.
  • Not everyone agreed: Careers360 reported that many candidates found QA easy, so perceptions of QA varied widely.
  • DILR was rated moderate and came as a relief after the very hard DILR sections of 2015–2017.
  • VARC perceptions also split: Career Launcher found it even easier than 2017, Careers360 headlined it as difficult, and Hitbullseye noted that close answer options hurt accuracy.

Suggested time: 36 minutes. Practice mini-paper of 20 questions; allow about 36 minutes. The real CAT 2018 gave 180 minutes for 100 questions, with 60 minutes per section in the fixed order VARC, DILR, QA and no switching between sections. Marking as in the real exam: +3 for each correct answer, −1 for a wrong MCQ answer, no negative marking for TITA (type-in-the-answer) questions, and 0 for questions left unanswered. Use only the on-screen calculator for arithmetic.

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC)

Passage 1

Every few years a list circulates of words that supposedly cannot be translated: a term for the particular light of late afternoon, another for the urge to squeeze something cute, a third for the melancholy of a chance that was missed. The lists are charming, and they flatter a widely held belief that each language encloses a distinctive way of seeing the world, inaccessible to outsiders. They are also, in an important sense, misleading.

To call a word untranslatable usually means only that no single word in the target language corresponds to it. But translation has never worked word by word. A phrase, a sentence or an example can convey what a lone word cannot, and the fact that English needs seven words to render a concept that another language expresses in one tells us about the economy of vocabularies, not about the limits of understanding. If English speakers could not grasp the meaning of a supposedly untranslatable word, the compilers of these lists would be unable to explain it to their readers, which they invariably do in a sentence or two.

This is not to deny that languages differ in what they make easy to say. A language that obliges its speakers to mark whether they witnessed an event or heard about it second-hand keeps the question of evidence constantly in view; a language without such marking allows the question to recede. Researchers have found modest but measurable effects of such grammatical habits on what speakers attend to and remember. The differences are real, but they are differences of emphasis and habit, not walls. Speakers of any language can notice what another language obliges its speakers to notice; they are simply not required to.

The romantic view of untranslatability carries a hidden cost. If languages are sealed worlds, then translation is a kind of betrayal, and the translator a well-meaning forger. Literary cultures that accept this view have sometimes undervalued translators and treated translated books as inferior substitutes for the real thing. The more modest view, that translation is difficult but possible, restores the translator to the role of a craftsman solving problems of fit, tone and rhythm, and allows readers to take translated literature seriously as literature.

The appeal of untranslatable words, then, may lie less in what they reveal about languages than in what they offer readers: the pleasure of discovering that someone, somewhere, had a name for a feeling one had assumed was private. That pleasure is genuine. It is simply a pleasure of recognition, and recognition depends on the very translatability the lists appear to deny.

  1. Which of the following best expresses the main argument of the passage?

    1. Some words are truly untranslatable because each language encloses a sealed way of seeing the world.
    2. Grammatical differences between languages have no effect on how their speakers think.
    3. Lists of untranslatable words should be discouraged because they insult translators.
    4. A word without a one-word equivalent is not beyond understanding; languages differ in emphasis rather than in what their speakers can grasp.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (A word without a one-word equivalent is not beyond understanding; languages differ in emphasis rather than in what their speakers can grasp.)

    The passage argues that 'untranslatable' only means 'no single-word equivalent' and that grammatical differences are 'differences of emphasis and habit, not walls'. A is the view it rejects; B contradicts the reported 'modest but measurable effects'; C overstates the point about translators.

  2. The author observes that list compilers explain each 'untranslatable' word in a sentence or two in order to

    1. criticise the compilers for writing explanations that are too brief.
    2. suggest that English is richer in vocabulary than other languages.
    3. show that the lists themselves demonstrate that the words can be rendered in English.
    4. argue that single-word equivalents are always preferable to phrases.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (show that the lists themselves demonstrate that the words can be rendered in English.)

    If the meaning can be explained to English readers in a sentence, it has been translated, which undercuts the lists' own claim.

  3. With which of the following statements would the author most likely agree?

    1. Grammar has no influence on what speakers of a language pay attention to.
    2. Grammatical features can shape habits of attention without stopping speakers of other languages from grasping the same distinctions.
    3. Speakers of a language without evidential marking cannot tell witnessed events from reported ones.
    4. Translated books are, at best, inferior substitutes for the originals.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (Grammatical features can shape habits of attention without stopping speakers of other languages from grasping the same distinctions.)

    Paragraph three accepts measurable effects on attention but says speakers of any language 'can notice what another language obliges its speakers to notice'. A ignores the effects; C contradicts 'they are simply not required to'; D is the romantic view the author criticises.

  4. The final sentence of the passage implies that

    1. a reader can recognise the feeling only because its meaning has been conveyed in the reader's own language.
    2. readers enjoy untranslatable words because they cannot understand them.
    3. the feelings named by untranslatable words are private and cannot be shared.
    4. translators should avoid explaining foreign words to their readers.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (a reader can recognise the feeling only because its meaning has been conveyed in the reader's own language.)

    Recognition requires understanding what the word means, which in turn requires that it has been translated, the 'very translatability the lists appear to deny'.

Verbal ability

  1. The five sentences below, labelled 1 to 5, form a coherent paragraph when properly ordered. Type in the correct order as a sequence of five numbers. 1. A set of closed loops, each inside the last, therefore marks a hill or, if the heights fall inwards, a hollow. 2. A contour line joins points on a map that lie at the same height above sea level. 3. With a little practice, a walker can glance at the pattern and see the shape of the land before ever setting foot on it. 4. Drawn at regular intervals of height, these lines turn a flat sheet into a picture of relief. 5. Where the lines crowd together, the ground rises steeply; where they spread apart, the slope is gentle. (type in your answer)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: 24513

    2 defines a contour line. 4 ('these lines') explains what they do together. 5 explains spacing and slope. 1 ('therefore') draws a further consequence about closed loops. 3 concludes with the practical skill. Order: 2-4-5-1-3.

  2. Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the sentence that does not fit and type in its number. 1. Night-shift work disrupts the body's internal clock, which expects darkness and sleep at night. 2. Workers on rotating shifts report more sleep problems than those on fixed schedules. 3. Some studies link years of night work to higher rates of metabolic disorders. 4. Employers can reduce the harm by rotating shifts forwards, from morning to evening to night, rather than backwards. 5. The daily cycles of plants, which open and close their leaves at regular hours, were among the first biological clocks to be described. (type in your answer)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: 5

    Sentences 1–4 concern the effects of shift work on human workers and how employers can reduce them. Sentence 5 shares the theme of biological clocks but is about the history of plant research, so it does not fit.

  3. The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Open-plan offices were promoted as a way to encourage collaboration by removing the walls between colleagues. Studies that tracked how employees actually communicated found the opposite: after a move to open plan, face-to-face conversation fell and email rose, as people sought privacy by withdrawing into their screens. Removing physical barriers, it seems, can lead people to build psychological ones.

    1. Open-plan offices increase collaboration because they remove walls between colleagues.
    2. Open-plan offices were introduced mainly to save money rather than to improve collaboration.
    3. Email is a more efficient means of communication than face-to-face conversation.
    4. Removing walls to encourage interaction can backfire, as people guard their privacy by talking less in person.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Removing walls to encourage interaction can backfire, as people guard their privacy by talking less in person.)

    The passage reports that the intended effect reversed: face-to-face talk fell as people withdrew for privacy. A states the original claim, B introduces a motive the passage never mentions, and C is not argued.

Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR)

Set 1

Six candidates, A to F, took part in a four-round selection contest. Each round was marked out of 50. A candidate's final score is the sum of his or her best three round scores (the lowest round score is dropped). Candidates are ranked by final score, highest first; ties in final score are broken in favour of the candidate with the higher total of all four rounds.

CandidateRound 1Round 2Round 3Round 4
A42353840
B30454428
C39394136
D47253345
E36402943
F33464237
  1. Which candidate is ranked fifth?

    1. B
    2. C
    3. E
    4. A
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (E)

    Final scores (best three): A 120, B 119, C 119, D 125, E 119, F 125. Four-round totals: A 155, B 147, C 155, D 150, E 148, F 158. Ranking: F (125, 158), D (125, 150), A (120), then the three on 119 by total: C (155), E (148), B (147). E is fifth.

  2. How many candidates have a final score of 120 or more? (type in your answer)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: 3

    A (120), D (125) and F (125). The other three have 119.

  3. If the final score were instead the total of all four rounds, which candidate would be ranked last?

    1. B
    2. D
    3. E
    4. C
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (B)

    Totals: A 155, B 147, C 155, D 150, E 148, F 158. B has the lowest total.

  4. For which candidate is the Round 1 score the one that gets dropped?

    1. C
    2. D
    3. E
    4. F
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (F)

    Each candidate's lowest score: A 35 (R2), B 28 (R4), C 36 (R4), D 25 (R2), E 29 (R3), F 33 (R1). Only F's dropped score is from Round 1.

Quantitative Ability (QA)

  1. A train passes a pole in 15 seconds and a 300 m long platform in 27 seconds. What is the length of the train in metres? (type in your answer)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: 375

    The extra 300 m takes 27 − 15 = 12 s, so speed = 25 m/s. Length = 25 × 15 = 375 m.

  2. A vessel contains 80 litres of pure milk. 8 litres are drawn off and replaced with water. This is done three times in all. How much milk does the vessel finally contain?

    1. 56.32 L
    2. 58.32 L
    3. 59.04 L
    4. 64.80 L
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (58.32 L)

    Each operation keeps 72/80 = 0.9 of the milk. After three operations: 80 × 0.9³ = 80 × 0.729 = 58.32 litres.

  3. In triangle ABC, AB = 13, BC = 14 and CA = 15. What is the length of the altitude from A to BC?

    1. 11.2
    2. 12
    3. 12.6
    4. 13
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (12)

    Semi-perimeter s = 21. Area = √(21 × 8 × 7 × 6) = √7056 = 84. Altitude to BC = 2 × 84 ÷ 14 = 12.

  4. A 25 m ladder leans against a vertical wall with its foot 7 m from the wall. If the top of the ladder slides down by 4 m, by how many metres does the foot slide away from the wall? (type in your answer)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: 8

    Initial height = √(625 − 49) = 24 m. New height = 20 m, so the new distance of the foot = √(625 − 400) = 15 m. The foot moves 15 − 7 = 8 m.

  5. A starts a business with ₹40,000. Three months later B joins with ₹60,000. At the end of the year the profit is ₹34,000. What is B's share, in rupees? (type in your answer)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: 18000

    Capital-months: A = 40,000 × 12 = 4,80,000 and B = 60,000 × 9 = 5,40,000, a ratio of 8 : 9. B's share = 34,000 × 9/17 = ₹18,000.

  6. How many integers x satisfy |x − 3| + |x + 2| ≤ 9?

    1. 8
    2. 9
    3. 10
    4. 11
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (10)

    For −2 ≤ x ≤ 3 the sum equals 5, which is fine. For x > 3 the sum is 2x − 1 ≤ 9, so x ≤ 5. For x < −2 the sum is 1 − 2x ≤ 9, so x ≥ −4. Hence −4 ≤ x ≤ 5: 10 integers.

  7. The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their LCM is 360. If one of the numbers is 72, what is the other?

    1. 48
    2. 72
    3. 60
    4. 90
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (60)

    Product of the numbers = HCF × LCM = 12 × 360 = 4320. Other number = 4320 ÷ 72 = 60. Check: HCF(72, 60) = 12 and LCM = 360.

  8. How many three-digit numbers have their digits in strictly increasing order from left to right (for example, 258)? (type in your answer)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: 84

    The digits must be three different non-zero digits (0 cannot appear, because it would have to come first). Any choice of 3 digits from 1–9 gives exactly one increasing arrangement: C(9,3) = 84.

  9. A trader sells two articles for ₹9,900 each. On one he gains 10% and on the other he loses 10%. What is his overall result?

    1. No profit, no loss
    2. 1% gain
    3. 2% loss
    4. 1% loss
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (1% loss)

    Cost prices: 9,900 ÷ 1.1 = 9,000 and 9,900 ÷ 0.9 = 11,000, total 20,000. Selling total = 19,800. Loss = 200, i.e. 1% of the cost.

Reports this mock is modelled on

How to sit CAT 2018

  1. Work through the mock paper above under exam timing. It follows the reported pattern, but the questions are our own.
  2. Sit the paper under current brochure rules (timers, negatives, NAT/MSQ norms), even if 2018’s interface looked different.
  3. When the clock ends, stop. Review should take at least as long as the attempt.
  4. Fill the error log the same day: section, topic, and miss type (concept, silly, time, or misread).
  5. Next session, repair only logged items. Then pick another year from the decade list.

Other years in this decade

FAQ

Where can I download the official CAT 2018 question paper?

The IIMs did not release it publicly. This page has a clearly labelled mock paper modelled on candidate reports instead.

What does the CAT 2018 paper analysis include?

A year snapshot, what the paper stresses, what to extract into your error log, and how 2018 compares with neighbouring years on this hub.

How should I practise the CAT 2018 previous year paper?

Open the official PDF, sit it timed under current brochure rules, fill an error log the same day, read the paper analysis, then move to another year in the decade list.

Is CAT 2018 still useful if I finished newer papers?

Yes, for theme and weightage mining after your newest papers are logged. Skip deleted syllabus pockets.

Are memory-based CAT 2018 papers reliable?

Treat memory-based sets as interim. Reconcile contested items with official keys or response sheets when the conducting body publishes them.

Where is the CAT syllabus and pattern for this paper?

See the CAT syllabus & pattern page on this hub, and always re-check the latest official brochure before exam day.