Labelled mock paper

SBI PO 2018 Previous Year Question Paper

SBI PO 2018 question paper was never officially released. Practise our labelled 2018 mock: 28 questions with answers, built on the reported pattern.

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No official SBI PO 2018 paper was released.Practise the labelled mock paper built from that year's reported pattern.Open mock

The SBI PO 2018 question paper was not officially published, so this page does not host it. Instead it has a clearly labelled mock paper with original questions modelled on the reported 2018 pattern, plus a timed attempt plan and an error-log routine. The SBI PO exam covers English, Quant, Reasoning, GA and Descriptive.

Explore: SBI PO hub · Syllabus & pattern · SBI PO 2024 · How to use PYQs

No official paper released

SBI did not publish the SBI PO 2018 question paper. Practise the SBI PO 2018 mock paper: original questions modelled on candidate reports, clearly labelled as a mock.

Why this year matters

Older SBI PO papers like 2018 are for mining, not nostalgia. Keep current marking rules, and skip topics the latest brochure dropped. Sectional timing and cut-offs matter as much as raw accuracy. Track attempts per section, not just the total.

Count attempts and accuracy by section. A high raw score with a failed sectional cut-off is still a fail in the real exam.

Paper analysis

Snapshot of SBI PO 2018

Older SBI PO archive.

2018 may feel differently paced than the newest cycle. Borrow stamina and theme lessons; do not copy obsolete section orders or marking quirks.

What this paper stresses

  • English error-spotting under speed pressure.
  • Mains vs Prelims difficulty mismatch (especially SBI / RBI).
  • Sectional cut-off failures despite a decent overall.
  • Puzzle / DI sets that should have been abandoned earlier.

What to extract before you move on

  • English miss taxonomy (grammar vs vocab vs RC).
  • Prelims vs Mains repair queues kept as separate lists.
  • Puzzle / DI patterns that beat you when you overstay.
  • Sectional attempt targets that still clear cut-offs in mocks.

How 2018 sits next to other years

Use 2018 only after SBI PO 2024, SBI PO 2023, SBI PO 2022 are logged. Archive years are for frequency maps, not for predicting tomorrow’s cut-off.

Analyst note: SBI did not publish the SBI PO 2018 paper. The mock below is original practice in the reported pattern; treat coaching “memory-based” papers as unofficial reconstructions.

SBI PO 2018 Prelims mock paper (modelled on candidate reports)

This is a mock paper we wrote. The official 2018 paper was never released.The conducting body has not published it. These 28 questions are original, written by previousyearquestions.app to match what candidates and exam analyses reported about the 2018 exam: section mix, topics and difficulty. Use it to practise the pattern. The questions themselves are not from the real exam.

SBI does not release the question papers or answer keys of its PO preliminary examination; its careers site publishes only information handbooks with sample questions, so there is no official 2018 paper to host. This is an original mock mini-paper modelled on candidate and coaching analyses of the July 2018 Prelims, the first SBI PO Prelims with sectional time limits.

What candidates reported about 2018

  • Prelims held on 1, 7 and 8 July 2018 in several shifts; 100 questions (English 30, Quantitative Aptitude 35, Reasoning 35).
  • Sectional timing was introduced in SBI PO Prelims this year: 20 minutes per section with no switching between sections; 0.25 negative marking continued.
  • Overall difficulty was rated between easy–moderate and moderate–difficult depending on the shift, and the question mix varied from shift to shift.
  • Quantitative Aptitude surprised candidates with quantity comparison (Quantity I vs Quantity II) and data sufficiency questions in a prelims paper.
  • Approximation questions appeared in three shifts, alongside data interpretation and arithmetic.
  • Reasoning was built around puzzles and seating arrangements, with syllogism, inequality and other short topics.

Suggested time: 17 minutes. Practice set of 28 questions (the real Prelims had 100 questions with 20 minutes per section). To mirror the 2018 sectional timing, give yourself about 5–6 minutes per section, in order, without switching back. Each correct answer earns 1 mark; 0.25 mark is deducted for each wrong answer; unattempted questions carry no penalty.

English Language

Reading comprehension

When a city replaces a diesel bus with an electric one, the most visible change is at the kerb: the bus pulls away without a cloud of smoke and with barely a hum. The bigger changes happen out of sight. An electric bus costs much more to buy than a diesel one but far less to run, because electricity is cheaper per kilometre than fuel and an electric motor has few moving parts to wear out. Whether the switch saves money therefore depends on how many kilometres the bus covers in its working life.

That calculation has pushed several transport undertakings away from buying buses outright. Under a gross-cost contract, a private operator buys and maintains the buses and the city pays it a fixed amount for every kilometre run. The city avoids the large upfront bill, and the operator, who bears the cost of repairs, has every reason to keep the fleet on the road.

Charging is the harder problem. A bus that must return to the depot for several hours in the middle of the day is a bus that is not carrying passengers, and depots in crowded city centres rarely have room for dozens of chargers or the power connections they need. Cities that plan their routes, depots and power supply together have made the transition far more smoothly than those that treat the electric bus as a simple replacement for its diesel predecessor.

  1. According to the passage, whether replacing a diesel bus with an electric one saves money depends mainly on

    1. the colour and design of the new bus
    2. how many kilometres the bus runs over its working life
    3. the number of passengers who notice the lower noise
    4. whether the city owns its own power station
    5. the price of diesel buses in other cities
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (how many kilometres the bus runs over its working life)

    Paragraph 1: the electric bus costs more to buy but less to run, so 'whether the switch saves money therefore depends on how many kilometres the bus covers in its working life'.

  2. Which of the following is true of a gross-cost contract as described in the passage?

    1. The city buys the buses and the operator only drives them
    2. The operator is paid a share of the fares collected
    3. The city pays for all repairs to the buses
    4. The operator buys and maintains the buses and is paid a fixed amount per kilometre
    5. The operator must build charging stations in every depot
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (The operator buys and maintains the buses and is paid a fixed amount per kilometre)

    Paragraph 2: 'a private operator buys and maintains the buses and the city pays it a fixed amount for every kilometre run'; the operator bears the cost of repairs.

  3. What is the main point of the last paragraph?

    1. Electric buses should never be charged during the day
    2. Diesel buses are easier to charge than electric buses
    3. Charging is a serious constraint, and cities that plan routes, depots and power together cope with it better
    4. City-centre depots have plenty of room for chargers
    5. Electric buses carry fewer passengers than diesel buses
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (Charging is a serious constraint, and cities that plan routes, depots and power together cope with it better)

    The paragraph calls charging 'the harder problem' (idle buses, cramped depots, power connections) and concludes that cities planning routes, depots and power supply together have made the transition more smoothly.

Error spotting

  1. Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: If I would have known about the strike, (A) / I would have taken (B) / the earlier train (C) / to the airport. (D) / No error (E)

    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. E
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (A)

    In a third conditional the if-clause takes the past perfect: 'If I had known about the strike'. 'Would have' does not belong in the if-clause, so part A is wrong.

  2. Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Neither of the two proposals (A) / was found suitable, so (B) / the board asked for (C) / fresh bids from the vendors. (D) / No error (E)

    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. E
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: E (E)

    'Neither of the two proposals' is singular and correctly takes 'was'; 'asked for fresh bids' is correct. The sentence has no error.

Fill in the blank

  1. Choose the word that best fills the blank: The bank's decision to waive the processing fee for flood-hit borrowers was a ______ gesture that won it much goodwill.

    1. petty
    2. hostile
    3. magnanimous
    4. miserly
    5. futile
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (magnanimous)

    A gesture that wins goodwill by waiving fees for people in trouble is generous: 'magnanimous'. Petty, hostile and miserly are the opposite, and 'futile' contradicts 'won it much goodwill'.

Para jumble

Rearrange the sentences into a meaningful paragraph.

A. Residents now pay a small fee for each can, which covers the cost of maintenance. B. Until last year, families in the colony bought drinking water from private tankers at high prices. C. The council then installed a purification plant with a card-operated dispenser. D. Tests had shown that the colony's groundwater was unsafe to drink without treatment. E. Since the plant opened, the tanker trade in the colony has almost disappeared.

  1. Which sentence comes THIRD after rearrangement?

    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. E
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (C)

    The paragraph runs B-D-C-A-E: the old dependence on tankers (B), the tests showing the groundwater was unsafe (D), the council's response, introduced by 'then' (C), the fee that pays for upkeep (A), and the result (E). The background sentences B and D must come before C, so C is third.

Sentence improvement

  1. Choose the option that best replaces the part in capitals; choose 'No improvement' if it is correct: The manager insisted that every employee COMPLETES the training by Friday.

    1. completed
    2. will complete
    3. has completed
    4. complete
    5. No improvement
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (complete)

    After verbs such as 'insist', 'demand' and 'recommend', formal English uses the base form of the verb (the subjunctive): 'insisted that every employee complete the training'.

Quantitative Aptitude

Data interpretation (table)

The table shows the total number of students in five schools A, B, C, D and E and the percentage of girls among them. All other students are boys.

SchoolTotal studentsGirls (%)
A120045
B96050
C150040
D108055
E135048
  1. What is the total number of girls in the five schools together?

    1. 2826
    2. 2954
    3. 2916
    4. 2862
    5. 2788
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (2862)

    Girls: A 540, B 480, C 600, D 594, E 648. Total = 2862.

  2. What is the ratio of the number of boys in school C to the number of girls in school E?

    1. 18 : 25
    2. 5 : 4
    3. 25 : 18
    4. 25 : 16
    5. 3 : 2
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (25 : 18)

    Boys in C = 1500 − 600 = 900; girls in E = 48% of 1350 = 648. Ratio = 900 : 648 = 25 : 18.

  3. What is the average number of boys per school?

    1. 645.6
    2. 652.4
    3. 638.8
    4. 646
    5. 660
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (645.6)

    Boys: A 660, B 480, C 900, D 486, E 702; total 3228. Average = 3228 ÷ 5 = 645.6.

  4. In school B, 85% of the girls and 80% of the boys passed the annual examination. How many students of school B passed?

    1. 768
    2. 804
    3. 792
    4. 816
    5. 780
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (792)

    Girls in B = 480, boys = 480. Passed = 85% of 480 + 80% of 480 = 408 + 384 = 792.

Quantity comparison

Each question gives two quantities. Work out both and choose the correct relation between Quantity I and Quantity II.

  1. Quantity I: The speed (in km/h) of a train that crosses a pole in 12 seconds and a 240 m long platform in 24 seconds. Quantity II: 75

    1. Quantity I > Quantity II
    2. Quantity I < Quantity II
    3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
    4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
    5. Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation cannot be established
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (Quantity I < Quantity II)

    The extra 12 seconds are needed to cover the 240 m platform, so speed = 240 ÷ 12 = 20 m/s and the train is 20 × 12 = 240 m long. 20 m/s = 20 × 18/5 = 72 km/h. Quantity I = 72 < 75 = Quantity II.

  2. Quantity I: The value of x, where x² − 9x + 20 = 0. Quantity II: 4

    1. Quantity I > Quantity II
    2. Quantity I < Quantity II
    3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
    4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
    5. Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation cannot be established
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (Quantity I ≥ Quantity II)

    x² − 9x + 20 = (x − 4)(x − 5) = 0, so x = 4 or 5. Both values are greater than or equal to 4, so Quantity I ≥ Quantity II.

Data sufficiency

The question is followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

  1. What is the two-digit number? I. The sum of its digits is 9. II. The number formed by reversing its digits is 27 more than the number.

    1. Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not
    2. Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not
    3. Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient
    4. Both statements I and II together are needed
    5. Even statements I and II together are not sufficient
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Both statements I and II together are needed)

    I alone allows 18, 27, 36, 45, 54, 63, 72, 81, 90: not unique. II: (10b + a) − (10a + b) = 9(b − a) = 27, so b − a = 3, allowing 14, 25, 36, 47, 58, 69: not unique. Together: a + b = 9 and b − a = 3 give b = 6, a = 3, so the number is 36. Both statements together are needed.

Approximation, quadratic and series

  1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark? 44.89 × 15.12 + 359.7 ÷ 12.05 = ?

    1. 690
    2. 705
    3. 745
    4. 725
    5. 680
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (705)

    ≈ 45 × 15 + 360 ÷ 12 = 675 + 30 = 705.

  2. Solve both equations and choose the correct relationship between x and y. I. x² + 9x + 18 = 0 II. y² + 3y = 0

    1. x > y
    2. x ≥ y
    3. x < y
    4. x ≤ y
    5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (x ≤ y)

    I: x = -6, -3. II: y = -3, 0. Comparing every pair of values gives: x ≤ y.

  3. What should come in place of the question mark? 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, ?

    1. 57
    2. 49
    3. 55
    4. 62
    5. 56
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: E (56)

    Differences are 1², 2², 3², 4² (1, 4, 9, 16); the next difference is 5² = 25, so ? = 31 + 25 = 56.

Reasoning Ability

Box stacking puzzle

Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are stacked one above another, position 1 being the bottom and position 7 the top. Each box has a different colour: Red, Green, Blue, Yellow, Pink, White and Orange.

Only two boxes are placed above U. S is placed above P, with only two boxes between them. V is placed immediately below P. The Pink box is placed below P, with only one box between them. The Yellow box is immediately above U. Only one box is placed between the Red box and U. The Blue box is immediately below the Green box, and U is not Green. R is placed immediately above the White box, and the White box is below the Pink box. T is placed somewhere below R.

  1. Which box is Red?

    1. Q
    2. S
    3. V
    4. T
    5. P
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: B (S)

    U is at position 5, so the Yellow box is at 6. S is three places above P: P = 1 is impossible (V must be below P), P = 2 would put S on U, so P is 3 or 4. If P = 3, the Pink box is at 1 and the White box could not be below it; so P = 4, S = 7, V = 3 and the Pink box is at 2. The White box is below Pink, at 1, and R, immediately above White, is at 2 (Pink). T is below R, so T is at 1 (White), and Q takes 6 (Yellow). Blue is immediately below Green among V(3), P(4), U(5); U is not Green, so V is Blue and P Green. Red is two places from U, at 7 (S), and U is Orange. Top to bottom: 7: S (Red); 6: Q (Yellow); 5: U (Orange); 4: P (Green); 3: V (Blue); 2: R (Pink); 1: T (White).

  2. How many boxes are placed between Q and R?

    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 1
    5. 2
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (3)

    U is at position 5, so the Yellow box is at 6. S is three places above P: P = 1 is impossible (V must be below P), P = 2 would put S on U, so P is 3 or 4. If P = 3, the Pink box is at 1 and the White box could not be below it; so P = 4, S = 7, V = 3 and the Pink box is at 2. The White box is below Pink, at 1, and R, immediately above White, is at 2 (Pink). T is below R, so T is at 1 (White), and Q takes 6 (Yellow). Blue is immediately below Green among V(3), P(4), U(5); U is not Green, so V is Blue and P Green. Red is two places from U, at 7 (S), and U is Orange. Top to bottom: 7: S (Red); 6: Q (Yellow); 5: U (Orange); 4: P (Green); 3: V (Blue); 2: R (Pink); 1: T (White). Q is at 6 and R at 2, so 3 boxes lie between them.

  3. What is the colour of the box placed immediately below U?

    1. Blue
    2. Orange
    3. Yellow
    4. Green
    5. White
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Green)

    U is at position 5, so the Yellow box is at 6. S is three places above P: P = 1 is impossible (V must be below P), P = 2 would put S on U, so P is 3 or 4. If P = 3, the Pink box is at 1 and the White box could not be below it; so P = 4, S = 7, V = 3 and the Pink box is at 2. The White box is below Pink, at 1, and R, immediately above White, is at 2 (Pink). T is below R, so T is at 1 (White), and Q takes 6 (Yellow). Blue is immediately below Green among V(3), P(4), U(5); U is not Green, so V is Blue and P Green. Red is two places from U, at 7 (S), and U is Orange. Top to bottom: 7: S (Red); 6: Q (Yellow); 5: U (Orange); 4: P (Green); 3: V (Blue); 2: R (Pink); 1: T (White). Immediately below U (5) is P (4), which is Green.

  4. Which box is placed immediately above the Pink box?

    1. T
    2. P
    3. U
    4. Q
    5. V
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: E (V)

    U is at position 5, so the Yellow box is at 6. S is three places above P: P = 1 is impossible (V must be below P), P = 2 would put S on U, so P is 3 or 4. If P = 3, the Pink box is at 1 and the White box could not be below it; so P = 4, S = 7, V = 3 and the Pink box is at 2. The White box is below Pink, at 1, and R, immediately above White, is at 2 (Pink). T is below R, so T is at 1 (White), and Q takes 6 (Yellow). Blue is immediately below Green among V(3), P(4), U(5); U is not Green, so V is Blue and P Green. Red is two places from U, at 7 (S), and U is Orange. Top to bottom: 7: S (Red); 6: Q (Yellow); 5: U (Orange); 4: P (Green); 3: V (Blue); 2: R (Pink); 1: T (White). The Pink box is R at 2; immediately above it, at 3, is V.

Syllogism

  1. Statements: All cars are buses. Some buses are trains. Conclusions: I. Some cars are trains. II. No cars are trains. Decide which conclusion(s) logically follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

    1. Only conclusion I follows
    2. Only conclusion II follows
    3. Either conclusion I or II follows
    4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
    5. Both conclusions I and II follow
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (Either conclusion I or II follows)

    All cars are buses, and only some buses are trains; those trains may or may not overlap with cars. Neither conclusion is certain, but I and II form a complementary pair (Some / No) about cars and trains, so one of them must be true. Answer: Either conclusion I or II follows.

  2. Statements: Some trams are trains. No trains are cars. All cars are buses. Conclusions: I. Some trams are not cars. II. Some buses are trains. Decide which conclusion(s) logically follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

    1. Only conclusion I follows
    2. Only conclusion II follows
    3. Either conclusion I or II follows
    4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
    5. Both conclusions I and II follow
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: A (Only conclusion I follows)

    The trams that are trains cannot be cars (no train is a car), so some trams are not cars: I follows. Cars are inside buses, but trains are only kept away from cars, so the buses outside cars may or may not be trains: II does not follow. Answer: Only conclusion I follows.

Inequality

  1. Statements: J > K ≤ L, L = M > N. Conclusions: I. J > N II. K < M. Which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true?

    1. Only conclusion I is true
    2. Only conclusion II is true
    3. Either conclusion I or II is true
    4. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
    5. Both conclusions I and II are true
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (Neither conclusion I nor II is true)

    J > K and N < M with K ≤ L = M give no link between J and N, so I is not definite. K ≤ L = M gives K ≤ M, so K could equal M and II is not definite. Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

  2. Statements: F ≥ G > H, H = I ≥ W. Conclusions: I. F > W II. G > I. Which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true?

    1. Only conclusion I is true
    2. Only conclusion II is true
    3. Either conclusion I or II is true
    4. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
    5. Both conclusions I and II are true
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: E (Both conclusions I and II are true)

    F ≥ G > H = I ≥ W gives F > W (I true) and G > H = I gives G > I (II true). Answer: Both conclusions I and II are true.

Direction sense and letter pairs

  1. Point A is 12 m to the west of point B. Point C is 5 m to the north of B, and point D is 4 m to the south of A. What is the distance between C and D, and in which direction is C from D?

    1. 13 m, north-east
    2. 15 m, north-west
    3. 17 m, north-east
    4. 15 m, north-east
    5. 15 m, south-east
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: D (15 m, north-east)

    Take B as (0, 0): A = (−12, 0), C = (0, 5), D = (−12, −4). C is 12 m east and 9 m north of D. Distance = √(12² + 9²) = √225 = 15 m, direction north-east.

  2. How many pairs of letters in the word 'MONITOR' have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (in either direction)?

    1. 4
    2. 5
    3. 3
    4. 1
    5. 2
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: C (3)

    M O N I T O R: O and N are adjacent in the word and in the alphabet; N and R have three letters between them in both (I, T, O in the word; O, P, Q in the alphabet); T and R have one letter between them in both (O in the word; S in the alphabet). No other pair matches, so there are 3 such pairs.

Reports this mock is modelled on

How to sit SBI PO 2018

  1. Work through the mock paper above under exam timing. It follows the reported pattern, but the questions are our own.
  2. Sit the paper under current brochure rules (timers, negatives, NAT/MSQ norms), even if 2018’s interface looked different.
  3. When the clock ends, stop. Review should take at least as long as the attempt.
  4. Fill the error log the same day: section, topic, and miss type (concept, silly, time, or misread).
  5. Next session, repair only logged items. Then pick another year from the decade list.

Other years in this decade

FAQ

Where can I download the official SBI PO 2018 question paper?

SBI did not release it publicly. This page has a clearly labelled mock paper modelled on candidate reports instead.

What does the SBI PO 2018 paper analysis include?

A year snapshot, what the paper stresses, what to extract into your error log, and how 2018 compares with neighbouring years on this hub.

How should I practise the SBI PO 2018 previous year paper?

Open the official PDF, sit it timed under current brochure rules, fill an error log the same day, read the paper analysis, then move to another year in the decade list.

Is SBI PO 2018 still useful if I finished newer papers?

Yes, for theme and weightage mining after your newest papers are logged. Skip deleted syllabus pockets.

Are memory-based SBI PO 2018 papers reliable?

Treat memory-based sets as interim. Reconcile contested items with official keys or response sheets when the conducting body publishes them.

Where is the SBI PO syllabus and pattern for this paper?

See the SBI PO syllabus & pattern page on this hub, and always re-check the latest official brochure before exam day.